In clinical practice, we often have patients whose eczema is worsened due to food allergy. I was surprised to see in the supplemental data, table S8 (on page 21) the rate of eczema between the consumption and avoidance groups was very similar. Could the authors comment on whether the severity of the eczema flares (i.e. the SCORAD scores) was different between the two groups? What could account for the similar eczema rates-- perhaps the frequent doctor visits allowed intervention into eczema care early and often?
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